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550 UPSC previous-year questions in Polity, with answers and concise explanations, grouped by topic. Showing the 120 most recent — open a topic for the rest.
Read the Polity notesWith reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
All three are correct: Article 361 grants the Governor immunity from court proceedings for official acts and from criminal prosecution during tenure, and Article 194 grants legislators immunity for speech inside the House.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
The President can promulgate an Ordinance that amends a Central Act (I) and gives it retrospective effect (III), but an Ordinance cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.
Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Article 163 of the Constitution explicitly preserves the Governor's discretion in specified matters, but the President can only reserve a State bill through the Governor, not independently.
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
The Supreme Court has held that the President's pardon power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review for arbitrariness, but the President must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not independently.
The 91st Amendment limits the total number of ministers in the Council of Ministers to what share of the House strength?
Why
The 91st Amendment (2003) caps the Council of Ministers at 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (or State Assembly).
Under Article 74, in the exercise of his functions the President:
Why
Article 74 makes the President act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Why
Only statement 3 is correct (MP's MLA vote value is higher than Kerala's); nominated members are excluded from the Electoral College, higher seats actually lower each MLA's vote value, and Puducherry's MLA vote value is lower than Arunachal Pradesh's.
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Why
All three statements are incorrect: Article 71(2) protects acts done before the void-election declaration; Article 62 requires the presidential election to be held before a vacancy arises even if some Assemblies are dissolved; and the Constitution prescribes no specific time limit for the President's assent to bills.
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
The Constitution does not classify ministers into four ranks (that is a convention), but the 91st Amendment does cap the total Council of Ministers at 15% of Lok Sabha strength, making statement 2 correct.
Consider the following statements:
Why
The Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks (that is by convention). The 15% cap on the size of the council of ministers is real — Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment. So only statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
The Department of Personnel was set up in 1970 on the ARC recommendation and placed under the PM's charge, making statement 2 correct; statement 1 incorrectly attributes the suggestion to the Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee.
At the national level, which ministry is nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Why
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as it deals with the welfare and rights of tribal communities.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to public servants posted outside India; the Chairperson need not be the CJI but a retired CJI or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court is also eligible; and Lokpal can inquire into PM's alleged corruption under certain conditions, only Statement III is correct.
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization | Some of its functions | It works under Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
Why
The Directorate of Enforcement works under the Department of Revenue (not Ministry of Home Affairs), so only two rows are correctly matched.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why
The 15th Finance Commission recommended 41% (not 45%) share for States, so Statement II is incorrect; Statements I, III, and IV are correct recommendations of the Commission.
With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Why
Only the Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis (Article 263); the National Security Council and Zonal Councils are statutory/executive creations, not mentioned in the Constitution.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why
After the 2002 amendment, the NEC comprises the Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent states and up to three nominated members, but the Home Minister of India is not a member of NEC.
Consider the following:
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?
Why
The 15th Finance Commission used demographic performance, forest and ecology, and tax and fiscal efforts as additional criteria; governance reforms and stable government were not used.
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Why
Only the National Commission for Backward Classes has constitutional status (Article 338B after the 102nd Amendment); the others are statutory bodies created by Acts of Parliament.
Consider the following bodies:
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Why
Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is constitutional — it was made so by the 102nd Amendment (2018), Article 338B. The NHRC, Law Commission and NCDRC are all statutory bodies.
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
The AG's right to participate in Parliament derives from Article 88 and is not exclusive to him and the Solicitor General; also, the AG holds office at the pleasure of the President, not tied to the government's resignation.
Consider the following statements:
Why
Only the Attorney General (not the Solicitor General) has the right to take part in Parliament under Article 88, so statement 1 is wrong. The AG holds office during the President's pleasure — the Constitution does not require him to resign with the government, so statement 2 is wrong.
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan under Russia's chairship in October 2024, and Indonesia joined as a full member; the theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security' (multilateralism, not multiculturalism).
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:
Why
INSTC is a 7,200-km multimodal route linking India to Russia and Europe via Iran and the Caspian Sea, bypassing Pakistan and reducing freight time compared to the Suez route.
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Only Statement I is correct, BIMSTEC has seven members; it was established by the Bangkok Declaration of 1997 (not Dhaka 1999), Myanmar and Bhutan (not Nepal) were among the original members, and tourism is led by Thailand, not India.
Consider the following statements: 1) 'Right to the City' is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 2) 'Right to the City' gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 3) 'Right to the City' means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Statement 1 is incorrect because 'Right to the City' is a concept promoted by activists and academics but is not a formally agreed human right in international law; Statements 2 and 3 correctly reflect its core ideas about public space and public services.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Why
Amendments affecting the Union List and the extent of executive power of States require ratification by at least half the State legislatures, but the conditions of a Governor's office do not attract this requirement.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
Why
All three are correct: Municipalities are in Part IX-A, Emergency provisions in Part XVIII, and amendment of the Constitution (Article 368) in Part XX.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
Select the answer using the code given below:
Why
All three statements are accurate: municipalities are in Part IX-A, emergency provisions in Part XVIII, and constitutional amendment provisions in Part XX.
The 'basic structure' doctrine of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?
Why
The basic structure doctrine was laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot damage its basic structure.
The Constitution of India came into force on:
Why
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949; it came into force on 26 January 1950.
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why
Article 368 explicitly permits Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal of any provision, so all three modes are valid.
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Why
The Flag Code prescribes the 3:2 length-to-width ratio (Statement-II correct), but 600 mm x 400 mm is not one of the nine standard sizes listed in the Code (Statement-I incorrect).
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Why
26th November is indeed Constitution Day (Statement-I correct), but the Drafting Committee was set up in 1947, not 1949, on 26 November 1949 the Constitution was adopted (Statement-II incorrect).
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
Why
The chief purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of government, so power is exercised within agreed bounds.
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
A Constitution Amendment Bill does not require the President's prior recommendation (Statement 1 wrong); the President must give assent and there is no provision for a joint sitting (Statements 2 and 3 correct).
Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'?
Why
A State is classically defined as a community permanently occupying a definite territory that is independent of external control and has an organised government.
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2) In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why
Both statements are correct: Parliament's legislative power is limited by constitutional provisions, and constitutional amendment challenges do go to the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court.
Constitutional government means:
Why
A constitutional government is, by definition, a limited government — it operates within the limits the Constitution sets on its power.
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration. II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Neither statement is correct, the State Government retains executive power in Scheduled Areas, and the Union cannot unilaterally take over administration merely on the Governor's recommendation under the Fifth Schedule.
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Scheduled Tribes are specified by the President under Article 342, not by the Governor, but the list can vary from State to State so a tribe declared ST in one State need not be so in another.
Consider the following statements:
Why
It is the President (after consulting the Governor) who specifies Scheduled Tribes under Article 342, so statement 1 is wrong. The ST list is state-specific, so statement 2 is correct.
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Why
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; annual reports on Scheduled Areas go to the Governor, not the Union Home Ministry, making statement 3 incorrect.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Why
Fifth Schedule areas carry special safeguards — chiefly to protect tribal land from passing into non-tribal hands.
Consider the following pairs: State – Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Why
All three pairs are correctly matched: Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh's capital) is named after Ita Fort, Nagaland was created by the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act 1962, and Tripura was a Part C State that became a Union Territory in 1956 before gaining full statehood in 1972.
Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
Both statements are incorrect: under the Tenth Schedule the Speaker/Chairman (not the President acting on ministerial advice) decides disqualification, and the Constitution does mention 'political party' in the Tenth Schedule.
Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
Statement I (Speaker continues until first meeting after dissolution) and III (removal by majority with 14-day notice) are constitutionally correct; Statement II is wrong because there is no constitutional provision requiring the Speaker to resign from their political party.
A Money Bill can be introduced only in:
Why
Under Article 110, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha; the Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
Select the answer using the code given below:
Why
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept Rajya Sabha amendments to a Money Bill.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below:
Why
The Ethics Committee was initially constituted as an ad-hoc body (Statement 1 correct) and cannot take up sub-judice matters (Statement 3 correct); Statement 2 is wrong because any person, not just an MP, can make a complaint.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Under Article 96, the Speaker shall not preside while a removal resolution is under consideration, but retains the right to speak and to vote in the first instance (and may cast a casting vote in case of a tie).
With reference to the Indian Parliament consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; Statement 3 is wrong because a bill for which the President has notified intention to call a joint sitting does not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
Why
Article 109 gives the special procedure; a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, which can only suggest changes within 14 days. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject those suggestions, so statement 4 is wrong.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Statements 2 and 3 are correct; Statement 1 is wrong because prorogation, like other exercises of the President's constitutional functions, is done on ministerial advice.
With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements:
Why
The Annual Financial Statement is laid on behalf of the President, not the Prime Minister, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct (Article 113).
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
Why
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha, or passed by it and pending in the Rajya Sabha, lapses on dissolution. But a bill for which the President has notified a joint sitting does not lapse — so only 1 and 2 are correct.
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
Why
Article 368 lets Parliament amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal — all three.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
Why
The President prorogues on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement 1 is wrong. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The anti-defection law is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?
Why
The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment (1985), disqualifies legislators who defect.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration —
Why
Under Article 96, the Speaker may not preside while a removal resolution is being considered, but may speak in and take part in the proceedings and may vote in the first instance (not in case of a tie). So only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
Why
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong — a joint sitting is never used for a Money Bill, and it is not mandatory for a Finance Bill either.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Why
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; Statement 3 is wrong because a Finance Bill that is not a Money Bill can go to a joint sitting, but a Money Bill (which already cannot be rejected by Rajya Sabha) does not require a joint sitting either.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Statement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is wrong because the Tenth Schedule allows a nominated member to join a party within six months of taking their seat, not prohibit it.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
Statements 1 and 3 are correct; Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no mandatory constitutional or rules provision specifying which party the Deputy Speaker must come from.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why
Passing a no-confidence motion is the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha; ratifying Emergency and impeaching the President are powers of both Houses.
Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Why
All three statements are incorrect: intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in states with small populations, the minimum age for membership is 21 (not 30), and it is the State Finance Commission (not the Chief Minister) that reviews Panchayat finances.
What proportion of seats in Panchayats is reserved for women?
Why
At least one-third of the total seats (and chairperson posts) in Panchayats are reserved for women.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is associated with:
Why
The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to the three-tier Panchayati Raj system; the 74th covered urban bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam stipulates a 15-year sunset clause and provides sub-quotas for SC women within the SC reservation, but implementation starts from the first Lok Sabha after delimitation post-2026 census, not the 18th Lok Sabha.
With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Action: The Act under which it is covered
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Why
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched; interfering with a police or military officer is covered under the Official Secrets Act or IPC, not the Indian Evidence Act, making Pair 2 incorrect.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prison Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provisional Governments. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Why
Prisons is a State List subject and the Prisons Act 1894 kept its administration under Provincial (State) governments, so Statement-II directly explains why Statement-I is true.
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Why
Statements 2 and 3 are correct; Statement 1 is wrong because Home Guards are raised under respective State Acts and Rules, not under a Central Act.
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as:
Why
Article 1 declares 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States' — signalling that States cannot secede.
Residuary powers of legislation under the Indian Constitution rest with:
Why
Subjects not in any of the three lists are residuary subjects, and the power to legislate on them belongs to Parliament.
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
Why
Inter-State migration and inter-State quarantine are Union List subjects (Entry 81); corporation tax is also a Union subject, so only the quarantine statement is correct.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why
The 71st Constitutional Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule; Maithili was added much later by the 92nd Amendment in 2003.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to include which of the following languages?
Why
The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili came later, via the 92nd Amendment (2003).
How many Fundamental Rights does the Constitution presently guarantee?
Why
Six, after the Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment (1978).
The Directive Principles of State Policy are:
Why
Directive Principles are non-justiciable (not enforceable in court) yet are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Which article did Dr. B. R. Ambedkar describe as the 'heart and soul of the Constitution'?
Why
Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies, lets a citizen approach the Supreme Court directly to enforce Fundamental Rights — Ambedkar's 'heart and soul'.
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
Why
In Puttaswamy (2017) the Supreme Court held the Right to Privacy to be part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
Why
The 1st Constitutional Amendment (1951) was enacted largely to overcome Supreme Court rulings that had struck down land reform laws as violations of Fundamental Rights, inserting the Ninth Schedule.
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Why
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, Article 355 obliges the Centre to protect states from internal disturbance, and POTA 2002 did not allow police confessions as evidence; Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution does not grant such an exemption.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Why
Statement-I is correct, the Supreme Court has linked Article 16(4) reservations to Article 335's efficiency principle, but Article 335 does not define 'efficiency of administration'; it merely mentions it as a consideration.
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates:
Why
Article 39(c), a Directive Principle, directs the state to ensure that wealth and the means of production are not concentrated to the common detriment.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Parole is a privilege, not a right, it can be denied even when a case appears sufficient, so Statement 1 is wrong; Statement 2 is correct as states have their own parole rules.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Judicial custody means the accused is kept in jail (not a police station) under the magistrate's order, so Statement 1 is wrong; Statement 2 is correct because police need court permission to interrogate during judicial custody.
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?
Why
Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws, and the Supreme Court has held that arbitrary or unguided discretion conferred on authorities violates the equality norm of Article 14.
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
Why
After the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) removed it from Part III, the Right to Property became a legal right under Article 300A, available to any person (not just citizens).
Subsequent to the amendment of the North Eastern Council (NEC) Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
Why
The NEC comprises the Governors and Chief Ministers of the constituent states plus three members nominated by the President. The Home Minister is not a statutory member, so statement 4 is wrong.
With reference to India, consider the following pairs (Action : The Act under which it is covered):
Why
Pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Interfering with an officer near a prohibited place is also covered by the Official Secrets Act, 1923 — not the Indian Evidence Act — so pair 2 is wrong.
Consider the following:
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
Why
All four, Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker, and DIKSHA, are built on open-source platforms as part of India's Digital Public Infrastructure stack.
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
Which of the above statements are NOT correct?
Why
All three are wrong: these awards are not titles barred by Article 18(1), the Padma Awards were suspended twice, and the Bharat Ratna is capped at three (not five) in a year.
At the national level, which Ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Why
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for implementing the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
Why
Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to stop it from proceeding beyond its jurisdiction.
The power of the courts to declare a law unconstitutional is known as:
Why
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to strike down a law or executive action that violates the Constitution.
A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office:
Why
Removal requires an address by each House supported by a special majority, on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?
Why
The 1st Amendment (1951) was enacted to overcome court rulings on Fundamental Rights — it added Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to protect land-reform laws.
Statement-I: The Supreme Court has held that reservation policies under Article 16(4) would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Why
Article 335 does require claims of SCs/STs to be balanced with efficiency of administration (Statement-I correct), but it does not define 'efficiency of administration' (Statement-II incorrect).
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Under the Advocates Act, only individuals enrolled as advocates are recognised; legal firms are not advocates, making statement 1 incorrect, while Bar Councils do have authority over legal education.
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct; the Constitution does not itself define civil or criminal contempt, that definition is given by the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given is correct?
Why
Mandamus can lie against a Government Company if it is performing a public duty, making statement 2 incorrect; statements 1 and 3 correctly state the law on Mandamus and Quo Warranto.
Consider the following statements:
Why
The Constitution empowers the SC and HCs to punish for contempt (Articles 129, 215) and lets Parliament legislate on it; the Act (not the Constitution) defines civil and criminal contempt. So 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India:
Why
Mandamus lies against any body charged with a public duty (including a government company), so statement 2 is wrong. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
With reference to India:
Why
Parole is a discretionary concession, not a matter of right, so statement 1 is wrong. States do have their own parole rules, so statement 2 is correct.
With reference to India:
Why
In judicial custody the accused is lodged in jail (not a police station — that is police custody), so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct.
With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
Article 128 allows the Chief Justice to recall retired SC judges with the President's consent; High Courts do not have an inherent review power equivalent to the Supreme Court's review jurisdiction.
The Right to Equality is guaranteed by which set of articles?
Why
Articles 14 to 18 make up the Right to Equality, from equality before the law to abolition of untouchability and titles.
Indian secularism is best described by which principle?
Why
Unlike the Western 'wall of separation', the Indian state keeps a 'principled distance' — it may intervene in religion when a clear principle of justice demands.
In the much-cited Belgian model, power was primarily shared among:
Why
Belgium accommodated its Dutch-, French- and German-speaking communities through power-sharing, and stayed united.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
Why
Four Delimitation Commissions have been set up so far — in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.
The superintendence, direction and control of elections is vested in the Election Commission by which article?
Why
Article 324 vests the conduct of elections in an independent Election Commission of India.
Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
Why
Rajya Sabha members are elected by the elected members of State legislatures through proportional representation with a single transferable vote.
Consider the following pairs: Party – Its Leader
How many of the above are correctly matched?
Why
Only pairs 1 (Bharatiya Jana Sangh – Shyama Prasad Mukherjee) and 3 (Congress for Democracy – Jagjivan Ram) are correctly matched; C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party and Acharya Narendra Dev led the Socialist Party.
'Rapid Financing Instrument' and 'Rapid Credit Facility' are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
Why
Both the Rapid Financing Instrument and the Rapid Credit Facility are emergency lending tools provided by the IMF to help member countries facing urgent balance-of-payments needs.
With reference to the 'G20 Common Framework', consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
The G20 Common Framework was endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club and specifically aims to address debt sustainability for Low Income Countries.
Consider the following:
India is a member of which of the above?
Why
India is a founding member of the AIIB, a member of the MTCR since 2016, and a full member of the SCO since 2017.
With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1) There is only 'one citizenship and one domicile'. 2) A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3) A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why
India has a single citizenship (no state citizenship) but there is no constitutional bar on naturalised citizens becoming President, and naturalised citizenship can be revoked on specified grounds.
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
Why
Separation of powers prevents any single branch from concentrating authority, thereby acting as the most reliable structural safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy.
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
Why
The original Preamble (1950) described India as a 'Sovereign Democratic Republic'; the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added only by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.